None of the options (including the correct one) makes sense to me.
A says "Many songs published in the early 17th century were composed by 16th century composers." Doesn't it actually strengthen the argument that as Suggs also belonged to 16th century, he might have actually written it?
A says "Many songs published in the early 17th century were composed by 16th century composers." Doesn't it actually strengthen the argument that as Suggs also belonged to 16th century, he might have actually written it?
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