RonTargetTestPrep wrote:
SolankiDas wrote:
Is the use of "to be" i.e. infinitive form of verb correct here?
we dont need infinative formhere
we dont need infinative formhere
Both versions work. The resulting meanings are different, but they're both reasonable.
'X is likely shaped by Y" means the same thing as "X is probably shaped by Y"—it's what the writer thinks is probably true about thing X ingeneral .
"X is likely tobe shaped by Y" as a statement about what's likely[ to happen in thefuture . (The grammar here
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