Hello Bunuel, thank you for your continued support. I’m curious about how you realized that multiplying by -10/n would give you the reciprocal of n. Is this a math trick or rule, or did you notice that this algebraic manipulation would leave 1/n in the inequality? Thankyou!
i dont get your point bangolarian
we have n^2 < 100 so -1/10 < n < 1/10
how you got n < - 1/10
Refer to my previous post:
We have\(n<0\) and\(n^2<\frac{1}{100}\)
\(n^2<\frac{1}{100}\) -->\(-\frac{1}{10}<n<\frac{1}{10}\) , but as\(n<0\) -->\(-\frac{1}{10}<n<0\) .
Multiply the inequality by\(-\frac{10}{n}\) , (note as\(n<0\) expression\(-\frac{10}{n}>0\) , and we don't have to switch signs) -->\((-\frac{1}{10})*(-\frac{10}{n})<n*(-\frac{10}{n})<0*(-\frac{10}{n})\) --> so finally we'll get\(\frac{1}{n}<-10<0\) . OR\(\frac{1}{n}<-10\) .
Answer: A.
Hope ithelps.
Why exactly do you multiply by -10/n? What is the reasoning behind this decision.Thanks.
The questions asks:... the reciprocal ofn mustbe . So, we multiply by -10/n to get the the reciprocal of n (1/n) in the inequality and
...
Bunuel wrote:
SeriousSLOBO wrote:
i dont get your point bangolarian
we have n^2 < 100 so -1/10 < n < 1/10
how you got n < - 1/10
Refer to my previous post:
We have\(n<0\) and\(n^2<\frac{1}{100}\)
\(n^2<\frac{1}{100}\) -->\(-\frac{1}{10}<n<\frac{1}{10}\) , but as\(n<0\) -->\(-\frac{1}{10}<n<0\) .
Multiply the inequality by\(-\frac{10}{n}\) , (note as\(n<0\) expression\(-\frac{10}{n}>0\) , and we don't have to switch signs) -->\((-\frac{1}{10})*(-\frac{10}{n})<n*(-\frac{10}{n})<0*(-\frac{10}{n})\) --> so finally we'll get\(\frac{1}{n}<-10<0\) . OR\(\frac{1}{n}<-10\) .
Answer: A.
Hope ithelps.
Why exactly do you multiply by -10/n? What is the reasoning behind this decision.Thanks.
The questions asks:... the reciprocal ofn mustbe . So, we multiply by -10/n to get the the reciprocal of n (1/n) in the inequality and
...
Statistics : Posted by thegmatmaster • on 01 Dec 2008, 05:30 • Replies 38 • Views 141838






