I try to understand A. So, the argument states that French learnt violin making from Italian. Also, before it is mentioned that it is harder to independently make these violins. If there is a trade over violin from Italy to northern France, it means that there is a cultural contact, however if vice versa no violin trade( which means French did not know what happened in Italy, and did everyhing on their own independently.
I do not know if I understand this correctly, so I would like you to answer from the scratch like I did not understand anything at all. Thank you so much in advance!
I do not know if I understand this correctly, so I would like you to answer from the scratch like I did not understand anything at all. Thank you so much in advance!
Statistics : Posted by Alijavad • on 08 Jul 2013, 12:43 • Replies 14 • Views 13237





