cogen234 wrote:
This is just another insane question which is not based on solid logic.
Just as in option C-where it could be argued that just because Portuguese didn't practice doesn't imply they didn't share the knowledge- in option B- it could easily be argued that though Portuguese had no contact with Ife, it's possible they learnt from Portuguese art/culture through other means such as indirect trade or depending on how world renowned the Portuguese art form was.
Just as you need a logic leap to justify
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