GMAT Club Tests | Re: M17-08

Hi,

i think statement 1 is also sufficient. if we do binomial expansion of 10^m as (9+1)^m. only last term will be 1^m and because m is positive integer remainder will always be 1 when 10^m is divided by 3. we will be left with (1+n)/3 in LHS and (1+m)/3 on RHS. hence we only need to prove weather m>n or not.

statement 1 also seems sufficient.

please reply, for any error i made.

Regards

Sushil kumar