I have overlooked The S-V mismatch in the choice E. But can some one explain me would that be still wrong if it were "has granted". I am left here in the dark when I see the comments that present perfect changes the tense unnecessarily. IMO since the introduction of the law lays in the past; it does make sense for me the usage of perfect tense here, because act granted rights and it is effects are still in place today/
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