GMAT Club Tests | Re: M02-32

Bunuel,

Can you please throw some light on my query.

For statement 2: I made till this point \(x^2\) (1−x)=0 -- > eq 1

When I segregated\(x^2\) = 0 and (1-x) = 0. Since \(x^2\) is always +ve and can't be 0 , so I eliminated this part. Finally, got x = 1.

I have seen such type of questions,even though when\(x^2\) is 0 some times\(x^2\) taken +ve and in few solutions it is not( case in our question). Under what cases we need to consider +ve or 0 when we have such eq 1 type.