Hello Experts,
Are we assuming here that US population comprises only of Americans and Asians, and no other community?
Even in that case, how do we arrive to the conclusion stated in "C" when we don't know the distribution(percentage) of Americans and Asians in the entire population?
To further clear my point,
if total population = 100 and Americans = x (would imply Asians = 100-x),
statements in the premise say 52.5% of Americans i.e of (x) are now owners of ..... and 66% of Asians
...
Are we assuming here that US population comprises only of Americans and Asians, and no other community?
Even in that case, how do we arrive to the conclusion stated in "C" when we don't know the distribution(percentage) of Americans and Asians in the entire population?
To further clear my point,
if total population = 100 and Americans = x (would imply Asians = 100-x),
statements in the premise say 52.5% of Americans i.e of (x) are now owners of ..... and 66% of Asians
...
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